A 28-year-old woman is referred by her GP with 1 week of abdominal pain, fever and offensive vaginal discharge.
She is not pregnant and has a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
(Marked out of 1.0)
/ 1
List three (3) risk factors for this condition, giving an example for each.
(Marked out of 3.0)
/ 3
List five (5) indications for inpatient management.
(Marked out of 5.0)
/ 5
None of the inpatient indications are present and the condition was not sexually acquired. Prescribe treatment.
(Marked out of 2.0)
/ 2
She returns 3 days later with worse abdominal pain after not complying with treatment. She is tender in the right upper quadrant and ultrasound shows a normal biliary tree. What complicating syndrome is likely?
(Marked out of 1.0)
/ 1
Total Score: 0 / 12
Percentage: 0%
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